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| Posted: Tue Oct 7th, 2008 01:11 am |
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Bama46 $user_title
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sounds like everyone is engaging in semantics to me. Ole, a sizable contingent of fplks would and do argue that they (secessionists)did not have the right to try.. Javal, I am asking what changed between the writing of the Declaration of Independence, correct me if I missed something, but slavery was pretty prevelent then too, right?, and 1860. Were not the issues the same? If not, why not?
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