View single post by ole
 Posted: Wed Jun 3rd, 2009 01:48 am
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ole
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How could the south by itself have controlled the House much less win the Presidency with a minority population? 

The Constitution itself gave the south extra voting power in the "3/5th" clause. At the time, the "south" had equivalence in population and industry with the "north." But then the industrial revolution kicked in ... and a flood of immigration.

And why didn't this industrial revolution and immigration awaken in the slave states? I see only one reason ... the Jeffersonian dedication that gentlemen farmed, owned slaves to do the work, and disdained manufacturing. So the immigrants stayed north and fueled the factories with their labor. The money and the votes stayed north. The south began to lose its voting power. And it was losing because of an aristocratic ideal based on slavery.

I've read where the south, in 1860, had 50,000 factory workers. The north had 50,000 factories. Why? Slavery.

Ole

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