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| Joined: | Tue Nov 15th, 2005 |
| Location: | USA |
| Posts: | 680 |
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| View single post by Hellcat | |||||||||||||
| Posted: Sat Feb 25th, 2012 02:22 am |
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Hellcat Person
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If Lincoln was ending the institution of Slavery once and for all with the Emancipation, then why did it only apply to those slaves in areas of open rebellion against the federal government?
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