View single post by Hellcat
 Posted: Tue Sep 3rd, 2013 05:53 pm
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Hellcat
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Joined: Tue Nov 15th, 2005
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If that's the case, then why apply it only to those areas in open rebellion against the federal government? The border states were slave states and the Emancipation left the slaves there in bondage. Also, I've read that Lincoln had it actually ready to be issued by July 1862 but was waiting for some kind of a major victory by the armies to do so. Not by the Army of the Potomac or forces in the Eastern Theater, but by all armies. Yet it's September 1862 that i's issued, and it doesn't go into effect until January 1863. It's issued after Antietam, when it could have been issued sooner as the armies in the Western heater were doing better than their eastern counterparts.

Edit: What I'm saying here is was the Emancipation a reflection of what was going on or was it about politics. Quite technically during the war Lincoln had no authority over what went on in the South. They had formed their own nation and were governing themselves as a separate nation. The only slave states Lincoln actually had authority over during the war were the border states, so why not free the slaves there?

Last edited on Tue Sep 3rd, 2013 09:57 pm by Hellcat

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